Quote Originally Posted by scotcher
Quote Originally Posted by E-learner
This is how I see it:
"... the most popular politician of his time" can only refer to a definite person.
"A Machiavellian ruler" is not a definite person.
Am I wrong?
Yes, you are wrong.

"... the most popular politician" refers back to the ruler mentioned earlier in the sentence. Grammatically, that is a definite person.

My objection to sentence 1 is that it contains a logical fallacy. The use of "will" is too determinate in a sentence that implies causality between a very general cause and a very specific effect. It implies that, simply by acting in a Machiavellian manner, any ruler can guarantee becoming the "most popular politician", which is provably false with even the most basic logic.

"A Machiavellian ruler could/ may/ might be remembered as the most popular politician of his time. "

"This Specific Machiavellian ruler will be remembered as the most popular politician of his time"
Sentence 1 is stupid, but technically, it is logically consistent. Sentence 2 is not logically consistent, as chaika pointed out.