Thread: Passive voice

Hi! So here is another question. The sentence I AM WRITTEN.
Does it mean that somebody wrote me or does it suggest that I am a book, a letter and somebody wrote me.
And is there any difference between I"M WRITTEN and I'M WRITTEN TO?
Thankx!!!

'I am written' has immense potential. Perhaps you are a book or a letter. Perhaps you are a word ('I am written with two 'c's'). I find this sort of first-person usage rather charming.

More conventionally, 'I am written' present us with yet another divergence between British and US standard usage: to convey that somebody has written or will write a letter to you, British English requires 'I am written to' ('I will respond as soon as I am written to'); American English allows 'write' to take a direct object ('he wrote me about you'). As such, 'I am written' (as in 'I will respond as soon as I am written') is fair enough - although it strikes me, an Old Country-er, as egregiously clumsy.

Perhaps there is a word - a preposition, perhaps - missing?: 'If I am written into her memoirs, I will sue. Indeed, I will insist on being written out'; 'I am constantly written about in the gutter press'; 'I am written off as a competitive force, but will prove them wrong.' Context is all - and the tense is a little artificial for some of these - but isn't language fun?

Originally Posted by joysof

'I am written' has immense potential. Perhaps you are a book or a letter. Perhaps you are a word ('I am written with two 'c's'). I find this sort of first-person usage rather charming.

Probably because it's a feature of children's literature; anthropomorphism.

More conventionally, 'I am written' present us with yet another divergence between British and US standard usage: to convey that somebody has written or will write a letter to you, British English requires 'I am written to' ('I will respond as soon as I am written to'); American English allows 'write' to take a direct object ('he wrote me about you'). As such, 'I am written' (as in 'I will respond as soon as I am written') is fair enough - although it strikes me, an Old Country-er, as egregiously clumsy.

This thought also occurred to me when I read the question. I'd bet they don't consider it acceptable in the passive. Interesting to hear what someone like Lindzi says on that.

PS I have to say your example 'I will respond as soon as I am written to' sounds fairly awful to me anyway. I'm not sure I'd ever use a passive like that.

Originally Posted by waxwing

Probably because it's a feature of children's literature; anthropomorphism.

Childhood is it, yes ('My first is in 'horse', but never in 'cart'...').

PS I have to say your example 'I will respond as soon as I am written to' sounds fairly awful to me anyway. I'm not sure I'd ever use a passive like that.

Really? I rather liked it, personally.

About BE and AmE. Do I get it right?

1) He wrote me (I got a letter from him) - BE
2) He wrote TO me (I got a letter from him) - AmE

Hm?

In BE you can't just say 'He wrote me' You would have to say 'He wrote me a letter' or 'He wrote to me.' I'm not sure about AmE but I think I have heard Americans say 'He wrote me.' as a complete sentence. This is not correct for BE.

So... "Explain please this rule" or "Explain please this rule to me"?
Is it right?

Most (normal) people (well, there arn't a lot of normal people here in the US, but let's just say learned people) here in the USA will say "he wrote to me" or "he wrote me an email/letter/post-it-note etc."...

I've never heard anyone without hair on the palms of their hands use "he wrote me".

Originally Posted by Indra

So... "Explain please this rule" or "Explain please this rule to me"?
Is it right?

both are correct. Although if you were addressing me I would expect a "dear Master Moon Monster, please..." before any command.

'Please explain this rule' and 'please explain this rule to me' would both be correct, but neither of those sentences relate to the question at hand.

Usuing the 'he wrote me' example, your sentence would be 'please explain me', and it would not be correct, at least in BE (outside the unlikely context mentioned earlier).

Mister Moon Monster, sir!
Could you give (me?) some more examples and similar words?

scotcher,
is it correct: explain me this rule
when I say shortly, "explain to me", "give (to???) me" etc

Originally Posted by Indra

Mister Moon Monster, sir!

Close...

Could you give (me?) some more examples and similar words?

Sure, but first give me an example of a word you want more examples of. What examples of similar words would you like?

is it correct: explain me this rule

No. But this is: explain this rule to me.

when I say shortly, "explain to me", "give (to???) me" etc

Interject a noun into those and you'll be fine (for ex. 'explain it to me', 'give it to me!').

Take BJ's example:

He wrote me a letter - He wrote to me

What else verbs can be used in this construction? (without the particle "to" if there is a direct object)

For example, he gave me a letter - he gave it to me - is this correct?

Okay...

She wants to stroke me - she is stroking my ego

I flashed her - she gave

sorry I can't do this. yes the "he wrote me a letter - he wrote me" works. And where I come from we say "what other verbs can be used..."