Quote Originally Posted by Seraph View Post
This last phrase “- If the evidence is so strongly in favor of the defendant that a reasonable jury could never find in favor of the plaintiff, then () defendant is entitled to summary judgment, and () plaintiff loses, then and there” is showing that you can in fact use an article as you expect, before ‘defendant’ and 'plaintiff'. The lack of articles at () is more the personal style of the particular writer, not a particular rule of English.
Thank you. Having read your explanation I think about the following: lets say I am passing some English test and have written this sentence in the quote above. What will an exeminer do? Will he consider "() plaintiff" as a mistake?