Thread: страдательные причастия прошедшего времени (Very Difficult Question)

Originally Posted by Antonio1986

However the 100% can be explained if you have knowledge of ancient Greeks. Greek language is the only one that the mathematical system of numbers, the musical system of notes and linguistic system of letters are united (I don't bother to explain). What matters that even the most insignificant detail has a specific rule explaining it (the only language in the word that has this privilege).

Unfortunately, I don’t speak Ancient Greek. So I can’t be sure, but your phrase sounds like some kind of misconception.
Yes, every natural language has many ‘illogical’ things that appear to be perfectly logical when you learn the history of the language. But Ancient Greek was a natural language too. As a natural language, it also had many ‘illogical’ things that appeared to be logical when you learned its history — Ancient-ancient Greek or Proto-Indo-European, and so on.

As for using the same symbols for writing words, numbers, and musical notes, this seems to have no relation to the language itself.

If you mean the orthography only, then yes, Ancient Greek has a phonetic orthography with a strict correspondence between the letters and the phonemes. That’s not because of the uniqueness of the language or anything like that. That’s because the phonology of the language had not yet changed significantly since the time when the writing system had appeared. A language with a short writing tradition usually has less complex spelling rules than a typical language with a long-standing writing tradition.