Thread: Russ =Swedish Vikings?

OOPS! That link is off the net now! But I have the info already if anyone is interested.
Now, the specialist have found proto-Sumerian scripture in Peru and Bolivia far away from Mesopotamia!
www.geocities.com/webatlantis/fuentemagna.htm
http://pub69.ezboard.com/fancientlosttr ... D=16.topic
www.geocities.com/Tokyo/Bay/7051/Awen3a.htm
www.geocities.com/Tokyo/Bay/poko2.htm
www.geocities.com/Tokyo/Bay/bpokotia.htm
So, when people have linked Chinese with Sumerian scripture and you find proto-Sumerian language in the Andes where you never suspected cos you never read such a thing (and then you discovered Egyptian mummies had cocaine and nicotine and were not mere droppings as critics imagined, coca from where?), then you may ask if Chinese/Sumerian maybe related to language of the Incas. Could it be possible? Of course if homophonous words are found the "experts" will say they are mere coincidences or false cognates sometimes ignoring the roots and the fact they are not just similar words bt do have same meaning:
www.zompist.com/proto.html#chinesequechua
Regarding Basque, for example, the linguists admit they know too little and yet we need to understand the history and geology also hidden behind the fact in Caucasian mountains there's a dialect of that language spoken in Spain! Yet, some dogmas have to be preserved all in behalf of "science" and ignorance....

It's like talking about Maya civilization. The experts defending the paradigmas are gonna say the temple of Chaac Mol was the temple of rattlesnake or bat or even a parrot (try to see if the tongue of the rattlesnake comes out of the mouth) instead of saying what is clearly visible here:
http://fotolog.terra.com.br/inca:93
http://fotolog.terra.com.br/inca:94
http://fotolog.terra.com.br/inca:95
Why would they say that? Of course it's cursed to imagine people from Central America before Columbus saw non-existing elephants or that maybe people from Africa or India arrived to Mesoamerica and influenced with Chinese figures in the pots or Lotus flower Hindu positions or dragons and so on...it would be a disgrace for the "patriotism" of the whole nation to admit such a thing! So, even the toys of elephants had to be removed from Jalapa Mexican museum just like Americans do in Smithsonian dungeons with other things.

They are not gonna tell you the depictions of elephants (not mamuts) and giraffes were done also in Bolivia and Colombia nor show the photos either.
http://www.sitchin.com/elephant.htm
They are not gonna tell you the archeologist Carter who discovered Tutankamon mummy also found BOOMERANGS as part of the treasure and the Curator of the British museum admitted also a knife made of STEEL that was more important for the Egyptians than the rest of gold (that I had the privilege to see in Egypt myself). They are not gonna tell you the son of a pharaoh travelled as far as Australia and we have evidence of that:
www.crystalinks.com/egyptaustralia.html
So, I'm well aware what I'm talking about. Russia is not an exception at all! That's why I have said Arab and Hebrew memories relate both ethnic and language in Russia frontiers in the past as Japhet offspring. But I bet some wise a$$e$ think that because they wrote an essay they don't even remember ...they really know. Waw! Not even the ones who really study dare to say they know. The more you know the more humble you become regarding eliminating possibilities.

Originally Posted by chinitial

The word "slavic" are related to the word "slave" in Roman and Bizantine epoch, great porcentage of the slaves came from the South of Russia, or Scythia, as was known in those times. Yet, the history is ......far away from these times....as I said.

Dictionary.com, as usual, says it better than I can:

[quote]Word History: The derivation of the word slave encapsulates a bit of European history and explains why the two words slaves and Slavs are so similar; they are, in fact, historically identical. The word slave first appears in English around 1290, spelled sclave. The spelling is based on Old French esclave from Medieval Latin sclavus, “Slav, slave,” first recorded around 800. Sclavus comes from Byzantine Greek sklabos (pronounced skl

As far as the Slavs' own self-designation goes, its meaning is, understandably, better than “slave” it comes from the Indo-European root *kleu-, whose basic meaning is “to hear” and occurs in many derivatives meaning “renown, fame.”
Even to read the dictionary we need to pay careful attention. In my message I said the word is RELATED to so the dictionary agrees. Yet, what the dictionary doesn't explain in details (and dictionaries don't say the whole truth) is WHY THE SLAVS PREFERED THE SELF-DESIGNATION . That counts indeed.
Also, although the dictionary expresses an idea already believed (and in the path of science linguistic has to be understood according to recent historical facts and hence, always changing and not saying the ultimate truth), the dictionary doesn't deny. It says an opinion: "is BETTER than slave". My source is not a mere linguist expert in one or two languages but a guy who was fluent in 30 languages and that was named in People's Almanac in the list of the bigger 15 linguists in the world. Not just a dictionary....with all do respect.

If there's really a magazine named the "People's Almanac" that named a list of the "bigger 15 linguists in the world"...okay, I can't even come up with a suitably hyperbolic statement. "Bigger 15 linguists in the world," for chrissake?

Банан - Banana.

I have a theory that Russian and American is the same language and even the same people, based off of this word.

(Also incudling other languages like swedish, which i speak fluently, that also use the word Banan(a))

That was magnificent guessing of Линдзи! Wow, what a mind, what a mind. Perhaps if I write the year, issue and name you won't shut up or stop from writing imbecilities.

Chinitial, it is common knowledge that German, English, and Dutch are related languages. Those words look like they have the same etymological origins because they do. What's next, an astounding list from Chinitial about the slang words used by Alex & Co. in A Clockwork Orange that resemble Russian words?

I prefered the Lord of the Rings' trilogy better. And on that note, a little known fact about LOR, one which I'm sure you'll all find excedingly enlightening; The language currently known as Finnish, was actually derived from Tolkien's mother-tongue, Elvish.
J.R Tolkien, with scrptures in hand, visited the land eastward of Sweden and taught the locals via his grammatical scriptures, which were in total... yes you guessed it, a trilogy. A proven fact. And further more, something I'm sure you'll all find amusing, one of Tolkien's Elvish descentants is actually on that said list "The Biggest 15 Linguists In the World". He ranks at number 3, at a staggering 532 pounds.

Hmm. Makes you think.

Originally Posted by Линдзи

As far as the Slavs' own self-designation goes, its meaning is, understandably, better than “slave” it comes from the Indo-European root *kleu-, whose basic meaning is “to hear” and occurs in many derivatives meaning “renown, fame.” The Slavs are thus “the famous people.” Slavic names ending in -slav incorporate the same word, such as Czech Bohu-slav, “God's fame,” Russian Msti-slav, “vengeful fame,” and Polish Stani-slaw, “famous for withstanding (enemies).”

Slav (славяне, словене) - люди владеющие "словом". I.e. Slavs are verbal people. Opposite to "немцы" (germans and all western people) - i.e. dumb and unlanguaged. I'm sorry.

Pravit said "Those words look like they have the same etymological origins because they do". Bravo, clap-clap-clap. You got my point so it's unnecessary to add more things. An the fact you know, it doesn't mean is "common" knowledge nor stips anyone to mention the fact again...just to remember. The question is not something we already know but WHY they do have the same etymological meaning and since WHEN.

All indo european languages are just variations of the same theme!

Originally Posted by Zhenya

All indo european languages are just variations of the same theme!

Yes, that is correct, Zhenya. A prime example would be the word Chinitial. This word is a conglomeration of many a foreign tongue, and refers predominantly to a European of Chinese ethnicity. Originally, Europeans had no single word for such a person, so the cumbersome reference given was man initially from China. It was later compacted into the word Chinaman-itial, comprising of the name of the country of China, and the Latin word for 'origin', initial. It was to be compacted even further, into the word we're today all so familiar with, Chinitial.

*A prominent linguist friend of mine, a descendant of the Elvish author J.R Tolkien, assures me that this is an indesputable proven fact, and not merely theory.

For a full bibliography, simply fill in an application form at;

superi-r-us@bowtome.com.onplease

Originally Posted by chinitial

Pravit said "Those words look like they have the same etymological origins because they do". Bravo, clap-clap-clap. You got my point so it's unnecessary to add more things. An the fact you know, it doesn't mean is "common" knowledge nor stips anyone to mention the fact again...just to remember. The question is not something we already know but WHY they do have the same etymological meaning and since WHEN.

Well, old Chinitial, if you knew anything of the history of Germanic languages, you would know the answers to the questions you are asking. Tell me, why exactly do many words in Spanish and Portuguese have the same etymological origins? Could it be that they are related languages? Now, if you can link Basque to Georgian, you'll be a hero, linguistically speaking.

My point is, was and will be this:
The ethymological background must be understood not only analyzing the roots of the words but the people who spoke those languages in specific regions in time, they can't be analyzed only in the basis of the language. I have said and repeat Basque is spoken in Spain and also in Caucasian mountians. If the very linguists themselves are wondering about the theories of the people who spoke those languages are not gonna be a bunch of amateurs who are gonna deny or accept just because they think. Now, it seems some of you have been enjoying so much to chat with me that keep on opening new subthemes of things I said rather than adding to the main thread. So typical!
Lemme ask you, what do you know about the "kelts"?

Originally Posted by chinitial

Lemme ask you, what do you know about the "kelts"?

No. But I've heard of the Celts

Chinitial;

Lemme ask you, what do you know about the "kelts"?

Yer noht thretnen te show us woht yer've goht hidden op yer kelt, ayer ye? Coz ay nay won'en te say et'.

I prefered the Lord of the Rings' trilogy better. And on that note, a little known fact about LOR, one which I'm sure you'll all find excedingly enlightening; The language currently known as Finnish, was actually derived from Tolkien's mother-tongue, Elvish.

bwahahahhaahha... I love it...

Chinitial, stop insulting people and pretending that you are so much better than everyone else. Do you not think that just about everyone here has at least taken a little time to learn the background on many languages? honestly? Please, instead of assuming everyone else is inferrior to yourself, give them the benefit of the doubt. A good scholar is a humble scholar.

--Peace
---Plastic

The Ukrainian historians Mikhail Hrushevsky and Orest Subtelny dismissed the "Normanist theory"(claiming the Rus were Vikings), saying that the only evidence for such are documents that were written several centuries after the fact. Theres no evidence outside these documents to claim that the Rus were Vikings. Orest Subtelny even notes that archeological evidence minimalizes the role that Vikings played in Rus society.