Thread: Janet in headscarf

Originally Posted by Biancca

So you only use one word for both "he" and "she" ?

Kind of like the French lui, or the improperly used "they" in English as in "They said they were going to do that." when you are talking about one person.

Yes , we only use one word for He and she . it's u , like "ue" in blue.

u mord = he or she died

let's try better verb , I don't like this verb (Mordan) .

u aamad = he or she came.
u khandid = she or he laughed.

Originally Posted by Prince of Persia

Originally Posted by Mordan

I have a French-Iranian colleague who is named Arash...

The sounds of the name is funny, it means "Tear up!"

I'm Iranian and my name is Arash , but Arash doesn't mean "Tear up" , Arash means "shining" . Tell your friend don't spoil my name . Arash was an ancient Persian(Iranian) bowman(archer) .

what does "Mordan" means in French , because in Persian it means "to die"! . Is it the same in French?

Mordan would mean "bitting". But it has several meanings

Like, "le chien mordant ce veil os...". Meaning "in the action of bitting"

Or you can have the meaning "particularly powerful"

Qui est d'une sonorit

"Biting" can mean powerful in English too, like the biting cold or whatever.
(But with only one "t" )

Originally Posted by Prince of Persia

In Persian(Farsi) the verb for "die" is Mordan

man Mordam= I died
to Mordi = you died
u mord = He(she) died
maa mordim = we died
shomaa mordid = you died
aanhaa mordand = they died

You've got 2 forms of "you" in there. That makes learning verbs harder for poor foreigners.

Originally Posted by Biancca

Originally Posted by Prince of Persia

In Persian(Farsi) the verb for "die" is Mordan

man Mordam= I died
to Mordi = you died
u mord = He(she) died
maa mordim = we died
shomaa mordid = you died
aanhaa mordand = they died

You've got 2 forms of "you" in there. That makes learning verbs harder for poor foreigners.

Well, it is English's fault, Biannca

you as in 2nd personal singular
and you as in 2nd personal plural

IE: to = ты shooma=вы

Originally Posted by kalinka_vinnie

Well, it is English's fault, Biannca

you as in 2nd personal singular
and you as in 2nd personal plural

IE: to = ты shooma=вы

Yes , you're right .

I think "to, tu , tu , du , ты and even you" , come from same mother word.

Originally Posted by Prince of Persia

In Persian(Farsi) the verb for "die" is Mordan

man Mordam= I died
to Mordi = you died
u mord = He(she) died
maa mordim = we died
shomaa mordid = you died
aanhaa mordand = they died

This hypothesis is too sophisticated. Actually, the name "Mordan" descends from the russian word "морда".

Originally Posted by Gerty

Originally Posted by Prince of Persia

In Persian(Farsi) the verb for "die" is Mordan

man Mordam= I died
to Mordi = you died
u mord = He(she) died
maa mordim = we died
shomaa mordid = you died
aanhaa mordand = they died

This hypothesis is too sophisticated. Actually, the name "Mordan" descends from the russian word "морда".

I know lol. I have been asked 2 times if I was russian because of my internet pseudo. It means "Face" right?

Yeah. Face.
But in a rude way.

Originally Posted by Mordan

I know lol. I have been asked 2 times if I was russian because of my internet pseudo. It means "Face" right?

Well, if you are a dog - yes... In other cases it's closer to "mug".

Originally Posted by kalinka_vinnie

Well, it is English's fault, Biannca

you as in 2nd personal singular
and you as in 2nd personal plural

Do what? What does English have to do with whether the Persians use both a formal and an informal form of "you"????

Originally Posted by Biancca

Do what? What does English have to do with whether the Persians use both a formal and an informal form of "you"????

But it's not only for formal and informal , when we speak with one person we say "to" and when we speak with more than one person we use "shomaa"
it's like , "du" and "ihr" in German , or "tu" and "vous" in French , I think only in English there isn't any defference between you and you , thus it's English's fault but it's not your fault Janet

Oh...you guys mean its a fault of the English language.

If you say its "English's fault" that means it was caused by English--that English caused the differences. I think I get what you mean now.

I don't think its a fault though I think its one of the things that makes English the easiest language to learn. We (English speakers) don't seem to have any problem using one "you". I like it.

And we do have a collective ihr/vous its just you guys or you people or any of you etc.

Apostrophe with s is used for living beings and of with objects, if to say it extremely simple. And I'm confused by the meaning of the fomer construction mentioned by Biancca, about "English's fault". What's that?

kalinka_vinnie is the one who made that up (English's fault) and yes it is incorrect that's what I was asking about.

It should have been "fault of the English language" I guess.

Ah, that's my frequent inattention to some things.

Originally Posted by Rtyom

Apostrophe with s is used for living beings and of with objects, if to say it extremely simple. And I'm confused by the meaning of the fomer construction mentioned by Biancca, about "English's fault". What's that?

English's fault = English did something bad, and it is to blame

A fault of English = A problem / inadequacy with the English language



It's Fantom's fault that the whole network went down

A fault of Fantom is that he is not a fast runner

Don't forget about "Y'all" as a plural "you" substitute...

Also, English used to have this formal/informal distinction of you...

"Thou" was the informal
"You" was the formal

Funny how now the meanings have completely changed with "thou" being reserved to church language or poetry and sounding very formal and you being the informal...

However if you want simple pronouns...go with Chinese...you've got words for I - "wo3" , you - "ni3" , and he/she/it - "ta1"...if you want to make them plural i.e. we, y'all, them you just add "men2" to the end
so you have "wo3 men2" "ni3 men2" and "ta1 men2"

As a note:
Different cases of "thou" and how they relate to other pronouns are:
I me my mine
Thou thee thy thine

Originally Posted by Biancca

I don't think its a fault though I think its one of the things that makes English the easiest language to learn. We (English speakers) don't seem to have any problem using one "you". I like it.

Yes , I agree with you . It's not a fault.
For example in Arabic there are 14 formula

I
we
he
they ( 2 Masculines)
they ( Masculine plurar)
she
they ( 2 feminines)
they ( feminine plurar)
you ( single masculine)
you ( 2 masculines)
you ( masculine plurar)
you ( single feminine)
you ( 2 feminines)
you ( feminine plurar)

so , it's very difficult to learn But in Persian we only have 6 formula and we don't have any problem , when we use "u" we can understand it is "he" or it is "she" . I think it's the same about "you and you" in English .

Originally Posted by tdcinprc

Don't forget about "Y'all" as a plural "you" substitute...

Also, English used to have this formal/informal distinction of you...

"Thou" was the informal
"You" was the formal

Funny how now the meanings have completely changed with "thou" being reserved to church language or poetry and sounding very formal and you being the informal...

However if you want simple pronouns...go with Chinese...you've got words for I - "wo3" , you - "ni3" , and he/she/it - "ta1"...if you want to make them plural i.e. we, y'all, them you just add "men2" to the end
so you have "wo3 men2" "ni3 men2" and "ta1 men2"

As a note:
Different cases of "thou" and how they relate to other pronouns are:
I me my mine
Thou thee thy thine

Hmm, you learn something new every day... I always thought "thou" was the formal in shakespearean days...

-Fantom

Originally Posted by Biancca

Originally Posted by kalinka_vinnie

Well, it is English's fault, Biannca

you as in 2nd personal singular
and you as in 2nd personal plural

Do what? What does English have to do with whether the Persians use both a formal and an informal form of "you"????

What do you mean "do what?"

You said:

Originally Posted by Biancca

You've got 2 forms of "you" in there. That makes learning verbs harder for poor foreigners

So it seemed like you were saying that the language is difficult because there are two forms of "you". I said simply that it isn't the persian language that is hard but the fact that the english "you" has two meanings. I thought you were momentarily confused and thought that persian had two meanings for the same word...

Futhermore, when I wrote (maybe not gramatically correct) that it was English's fault, I was referring to how come learning verbs is hard for poor foreigners... not to the reason why persian has two "you"s

Kapish, forum?

But to go back to the inefficieny of my apostrophe, is it true that only living beings that can use it? Are these examples wrong?

I was blinded by the Moon's bright light
The car's wheels fell off
The calculator's keyboard is pretty fancy
A country's national product