
Originally Posted by
Yukionna
Hello everyone.
I have a question. I was taught that to deny the infinitive you have to put negation before the particle 'to' (not to), but reading some internet sites and forums, I noticed that there are cases when people put negation between particle 'to' and the infinitive.
What deference in meaning is there between these two cases?
Thank you in advance for all your repllies.